Monday, December 31, 2012
5 Key Questions To Ask Before Buying A Used Car
中古車の保証のための市場 - あなたが中古車のための市場にある場合は、同時に別の市場に存在する必要があります。あなたは、両方のために買い物をする必要があります。と注意していないyoureの場合、あなたは自分自身で悪い延長保証上の数百または数千ドルの費用がかかってしまうこともあります。
あなたが買い物をしているときは、延長保証とは何かを覚えています。それは本質的に新車保証(工場出荷時の保証)が終了した後の事をカバーするサービス契約です。あなたも偉大な延長保証では、新車·カバレッジのすべてを取得することはありませんので、あなたを困らせてはいけないこと。しかし、あなたが取得するのかについて洗練されたものです。ここで聞いていくつかの質問があります。
あなたは本当に延長保証が必要なのでしょうか?左元の保証の大部分がある場合は、そうでないかもしれない。保証は、新しい買い手に転送した場合は、できるだけ多くすることが必要としてカバーまたは欲しいかもしれません。あなたは延長保証に費やしたであろうお金を保存すると、スマートなオプションであるかもしれません。
延長保証とはどういう考慮をyoureの覆われている?これは答えることは非常に重要な質問である。ガスのための彼らの店のような延長保証のための多くの人々の買い物 - 彼らが見つけることができる最も安い買う。それはしばしば大きな間違いです。延長保証の世界では、あなたが頻繁にあなたが何を支払うを取得します。
何が欲しいの機械的な故障や消耗をカバーする保証です。摩滅が磨耗し、あなたの車の性能を低下させる傾向がものをいう。失敗ではなく、HP HP0-276 examination磨耗する傾向があることを身に付けリング、打撃ピストン、過熱による損傷、漏れ、等あなたの車の中でスタッフのようなものを意味しますので、摩耗をカバーし、破れていない保証のために解決しません。
保証会社は評判が良いのですか?あなたはアシュベタービジネスビューローまたはWebからの会社についての情報を得ることができない場合は、疫病のようにそれらを避けてください。
あなたは低ティーザーレートで安価な延長保証を提供する多くの企業がほとんど(あるいはすべての)クレームを拒絶することがわかります。彼らがそのような安価な製品でお金を稼ぐ方法のthats。彼らは、自分の携帯電話に答えないかもしれません。彼らはあなたが保証に同意する前に確認する契約を送信されない場合があります。これらはすべて、悪い兆候です。
保証は、修理工場に直接支払うことになる?彼らはあなたが最初に支払わせる場合、彼らはあなたを償還し難癖をつけることができます。これは、そこに最大の詐欺の戦術の一つです。あなたが直接修理工場を払い、あなたがあなた自身のお金を支払うと償還を期待するように強制しません保証を選択する必要があります。
任意のASE認定店で修理を得ることができますか?あなたが保証をどこで買ったあなたはサービスを受ける強制、または(あなたがニュージャHP0-J24ージーに住んでいればそれは便利かもしれませんが)大きいニューアークエリアにはいくつかの修理工場にあなたを制限していることの保証をほしいと思わない。あなたは自動車サービスエクセレンス(ASE)のための国立研究所によって認定どんなお店であなたのサービスを得ることができます保証を求めています。それはあなたから選択する〜40万専門家を持って柔軟性を提供します。
あなたが探して何を知っていれば、中古車の保証は、ご購入を保護するために素晴らしい方法することができます。あなたがこれらの5つの主要な質問に答えた場合は、できるだけ多くのあなたの車を保護しようとしているとして自分自身を守ることができるようになります。
Tuesday, December 18, 2012
646-573 study material
あなたのヘルプデスクの位置で立ち往生している?あなたは、ITのキャリアを持っていますが、あなただけの隠語上方に移動するように見えるのですか? CCNAトレーニングは間違いなくあなたがあなたのキャリアを高めることができるようになります。それはあなたが別のネットワークシステムが過多に問題をトラブルシューティングして解決するために必要なすべての情報を提供します。
CCNA646-573は、シスコ認定ネットワークアソシエイトの略です。このCisco認定は、シスコネットワークに関する知識の初心者レベルの指標である。このCCNAトレーニングを使用すると、インストールして、WAN、LANの設定、およびデータ·99ノードの中心と下のを持っているネットワークのためのサービスをダイヤルアップする方法を学習します。 IGRPのような、IPシリアル、IP RIP、イーサネット、フレームリレー、およびVLAN(仮想LAN)などのプロトコルを使用するための一般的な知識になります。シスコが提供する技術者が達成することができる資格の広い配列であるため、あなたはCCNAのトレーニングビデオであなたのキャリアトラックを開始すると可能性は無限大です。
だから、どのようにあなたはCCNA試験のために訓練するためにあなたの忙しい一日の時間を取るのですか?単純な、それはコンピュータベースのトレーニング(CBT)と呼ばれています。 CBTは、両方の雇用者と従業員で、これらの日は非常に人気になっている学習方法です。コースはCCNAのトレーニングDVDにしているためのロードされていますこの訓練は、ポータブルおよび極めて自己ペースです。あなた自身の研究のためのCCNA CBTを購入した場合、それはあなたとの個人的な家庭教師のすべての時間を持っているようなものです。あなたは、単に任意のコンピュータにディスクを飛び出させて、プレーヤーを起動して、ほら、あなたのトレーニングはオンデマンドです!HP HP3-C11 exam dumps多くのCCNAの遠隔学習コースは、任意のインターネット対応PCから学ぶことができることを利用できるがあることを忘れてはいけない。
彼らはあなたがあなたの裁量で勉強時間にスケジュールすることを可能にするので、コンピュータベースのCCNAコースは非常に手に持っているという贅沢です。今、あなたはクラスに出席したり、伝統的な教室の設定での講演を聞くために持っていけないため、Cisco教育の下の道路を取ることはずっと簡単になりました。 CBTは自習教育の王様です。
Thursday, November 8, 2012
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You are implementing an ASP.NET application that uses data-bound GridView controls in multiple pages.
You add JavaScript code to periodically update specific types of data items in these GridView controls.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript code can locate the HTML elements created for each row in these GridView controls, without needing to be changed if the controls are moved from one page to another.
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A.Replace the GridView control with a ListView control.
B.Set the ClientIDMode attribute to Predictable in the web.config file.
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D.Set the @ OutputCache directive's VaryByControl attribute to the ID of the GridView control.
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4. What are three types of operation accepted by the dcmQueryCommand command?
A. DCMInsert. DCMImport,and DCMDelete
B. DCMInsert, DCMExport,and DCMUpdate
C. DCMinsert, DCMChange, and DCMDelete
D. DCMInsert,DCMChange, and DCMDelete
Answers: C
5. A Windows IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager(TPM) server,by default,has the IBM Tivoli Directory Server Instance service configured for a manual start, After booting , the Tivoli Directory Server Instance has been manualty started . what is the final step to activate the TPM server?
A. Nothing else is required ,TPM is ready to go
B. Select/click the TPM start icon on the desktop
C. Start WebSphere and then select the TPM start icon
D. Start WebSphere byselecting the start WebShphere icon
Answers: D
6. In which instance is a federated agent deployed?
A. when the network has broadband links
B. when the network environment has DS4 trunk lines
C. when the network environment is designed with high performing routers
D. when the network environment has slow links and target machines are located remotely
Answers: D
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Tuesday, October 30, 2012
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A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients. Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license?
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B.Autopass
C.Direct backup
D.Indirect backup
Correct:A
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2.A remote connection is being established from a Windows system running DB2 Connect to a DB2 for z/OS subsystem called DBX1. The following Node and database directory entries have already been cataloged: Node 1 entry: Node name = DBX1NODE Comment = Protocol = TCPIP Hostname = dbx1.company.com Service name = 2500 Database 1 entry: Database alias = DBX1 Database name = TEST Node name = DBX1NODE Database release level = 9.00 Comment = Directory entry type = Remote Authentication = SERVER Catalog node number = -1 Which of the following commands will catalog the DCS directory entry?
A.CATALOG DCS DATABASE test AS dbx1
B.CATALOG DCS DATABASE dbx1 AS test
C.CATALOG DCS DATABASE dbx1 AT dbx1node
D.CATALOG DCS DATABASE test AT dbx1node
Correct:A
3.Which of the following settings for the DB2MAXFSCRSEARCH registry variable ensures a complete search for space in the database tables, possibly making inserts slower?
A.1
B.5
C.-1
D.33554
Correct:C
4.Defining a table as VOLATILE indicates which of the following to the DB2 optimizer?
A.The table is frequently dropped and recreated.
B.The number of rows in the table typically varies significantly.
C.The table is the target of SELECT statements from a large number of users.
D.The entire table should be kept in the buffer pool so that DB2 can access it using table scans.
Correct:B
2.A remote connection is being established from a Windows system running DB2 Connect to a DB2 for z/OS subsystem called DBX1. The following Node and database directory entries have already been cataloged: Node 1 entry: Node name = DBX1NODE Comment = Protocol = TCPIP Hostname = dbx1.company.com Service name = 2500 Database 1 entry: Database alias = DBX1 Database name = TEST Node name = DBX1NODE Database release level = 9.00 Comment = Directory entry type = Remote Authentication = SERVER Catalog node number = -1 Which of the following commands will catalog the DCS directory entry?
A.CATALOG DCS DATABASE test AS dbx1
B.CATALOG DCS DATABASE dbx1 AS test
C.CATALOG DCS DATABASE dbx1 AT dbx1node
D.CATALOG DCS DATABASE test AT dbx1node
Correct:A
3.Which of the following settings for the DB2MAXFSCRSEARCH registry variable ensures a complete search for space in the database tables, possibly making inserts slower?
A.1
B.5
C.-1
D.33554
Correct:C
4.Defining a table as VOLATILE indicates which of the following to the DB2 optimizer?
A.The table is frequently dropped and recreated.
B.The number of rows in the table typically varies significantly.
C.The table is the target of SELECT statements from a large number of users.
D.The entire table should be kept in the buffer pool so that DB2 can access it using table scans.
Correct:B
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Wednesday, October 24, 2012
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D. It loads all content from web servers to flash.
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QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial output of the debug command, what can be determined?
A. There is no ID payload in the packet, as indicated by the message ID = 0.
B. The peer has not matched any offered profiles.
C. This is an IKE quick mode negotiation.
D. This is normal output of a successful Phase 1 IKE exchange.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two Cisco IOS WebVPN features are enabled with the partial configuration shown? (Choose two.)
A. The end-user CiscoAnyConnect VPN software will remain installed on the end system.
B. If the CiscoAnyConnect VPN software fails to install on the end-user PC, the end user cannot use other modes.
C. Client based full tunnel access has been enabled.
D. Traffic destined to the 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be tunneled and will be allowed access via a split tunnel.
E. Clients will be assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.0.0/16 range.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two of these are benefits of implementing a zone-based policy firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A. Less firewall management is needed.
B. It can be easily introduced into an existing network.
C. IP readdressing is unnecessary.
D. It adds the ability tostatefully inspect non-IP traffic.
E. It has less impact on data flows.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial output of the debug command, what can be determined?
A. There is no ID payload in the packet, as indicated by the message ID = 0.
B. The peer has not matched any offered profiles.
C. This is an IKE quick mode negotiation.
D. This is normal output of a successful Phase 1 IKE exchange.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two Cisco IOS WebVPN features are enabled with the partial configuration shown? (Choose two.)
A. The end-user CiscoAnyConnect VPN software will remain installed on the end system.
B. If the CiscoAnyConnect VPN software fails to install on the end-user PC, the end user cannot use other modes.
C. Client based full tunnel access has been enabled.
D. Traffic destined to the 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be tunneled and will be allowed access via a split tunnel.
E. Clients will be assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.0.0/16 range.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two of these are benefits of implementing a zone-based policy firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A. Less firewall management is needed.
B. It can be easily introduced into an existing network.
C. IP readdressing is unnecessary.
D. It adds the ability tostatefully inspect non-IP traffic.
E. It has less impact on data flows.
Answer: BC
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Wednesday, October 17, 2012
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How do you change the display language of the copy module of the Color LaserJet 8550mfp? Select TWO.
A.use Web JetAdmin
B.flash copy module firmware
C.use the printer control panel
D.install a firmware localization DIMM
Correct:B D
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Question 1
You work in an international company which is named Wiikigo. Before entering this company, you have two years of experience in the IT field, as well as experience implementing and administering any Windows client operating system in a networked environment. You are professional in installing, upgrading and migrating to Windows 7, deploying Windows 7, and configuring Hardware and Applications and son on. You have a workgroup which contains five computers. Windows 7 is run by the computers. A computer named C01 has video and audio files. You have to share C01s video and audio files on the network. What should you do?
(Choose more than one)
A. Connect a removable drive and enable BitLocker To Go.
B. A HomeGroup should be created.
C. The files should be moved to a Media Library.
D. All BranchCache rules should be enabled in Windows Firewall.
Answer: BC
Question 2
You work in an international company which is named Wiikigo. Before entering this company, you have two years of experience in the IT field, as well as experience implementing and administering any Windows client operating system in a networked environment. You are professional in installing, upgrading and migrating to Windows 7, deploying Windows 7, and configuring Hardware and Applications and son on. You manage a computer that runs Windows 7. You have to identify which applications were installed during the last week. So what action should you perform?
A. The System Performance Data Collector Set should be run from Performance Monitor.
B. The informational events should be reviewed from Reliability Monitor.
C. The Software Environment should be reviewed from System Information.
D. The System Diagnostics Report should be reviewed from Performance Monitor.
Answer: B
Question 1
You work in an international company which is named Wiikigo. Before entering this company, you have two years of experience in the IT field, as well as experience implementing and administering any Windows client operating system in a networked environment. You are professional in installing, upgrading and migrating to Windows 7, deploying Windows 7, and configuring Hardware and Applications and son on. You have a workgroup which contains five computers. Windows 7 is run by the computers. A computer named C01 has video and audio files. You have to share C01s video and audio files on the network. What should you do?
(Choose more than one)
A. Connect a removable drive and enable BitLocker To Go.
B. A HomeGroup should be created.
C. The files should be moved to a Media Library.
D. All BranchCache rules should be enabled in Windows Firewall.
Answer: BC
Question 2
You work in an international company which is named Wiikigo. Before entering this company, you have two years of experience in the IT field, as well as experience implementing and administering any Windows client operating system in a networked environment. You are professional in installing, upgrading and migrating to Windows 7, deploying Windows 7, and configuring Hardware and Applications and son on. You manage a computer that runs Windows 7. You have to identify which applications were installed during the last week. So what action should you perform?
A. The System Performance Data Collector Set should be run from Performance Monitor.
B. The informational events should be reviewed from Reliability Monitor.
C. The Software Environment should be reviewed from System Information.
D. The System Diagnostics Report should be reviewed from Performance Monitor.
Answer: B
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Wednesday, October 10, 2012
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What are two supported options when determining which user registry to use in an IBM Tivoli Access
Manager for e-business V6.1.1 environment? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
B. Open Source LDAP Server
C. Novell Java Directory Server
D. Oracle User Directory Server
E. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode (ADAM)
Answer: A, E
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1. Which two statements regarding Single Instance Store (SIS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Single Instance Store Item Type and child attribute must be referenced in the CommonStore Server configuration file.
B. CommonStore uses two Item Types to store information for Single Instance Store, one for the document itself and one for the SIS hash key.
C. Once Single Instance Store is configured, CommonStore stores just one copy of each archived document, no matter how it is archived.
D. The Single Instance Store Child attribute may be shared among Item Types on the same library server.
E. Once you have enabled Single Instance Store for an Item Type, you may not turn it off.
Answer:AE
2. It is common for various groups within the same orgainzation to have different requirements. These differences can greatly increase the complexity and cost of delivering the required CommonStore solutions. It is advisable to significantly reduce the number of separate policies by using a modular approach with a limited number of variations. How should you determine the two requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a top-down approach to fulfill major requirements and then review and fulfill minor requirements.
B. Place all of the requirements in a pile and randomly make a selection.
C. Prioritize the requirements basic on the delivery cost.
D. Ask the customer to prioritize the requirements.
E. Implement major requirements only.
Answer:AD
3. If your company policy requires that the Content Manager password be changed every 90 days, which action must the CommonStore administrator perform after changing the password?
A. Run CSX Task -p to store the new Content Manager password.
B. Run ArchPro -p to store the new Content Manager password.
C. Use notepad to update the Archint.ini file with the new Content Manager password.
D. Use notepad to update the archint.cfg file with the Content Manager password.
Answer: B
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Friday, October 5, 2012
the study 1Z0-225 exam
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What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?
A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tags
B. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requests
C. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program
D. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the Cycle Count Entries Open Interface
Answer: C
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What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?
A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tags
B. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requests
C. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program
D. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the Cycle Count Entries Open Interface
Answer: C
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1. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?
A.Cache memory
B.Clone Private LUN
C.PSM
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: D
2. In a CLARiiON array, which clone state would prevent a clone from being removed from a clone group?
A.Consistent
B.Fractured
C.Promoted
D.Synchronizing
Answer: D
3. How many bi-directional mirror relationships are allowed per CLARiiON array?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Answer: C
1. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?
A.Cache memory
B.Clone Private LUN
C.PSM
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: D
2. In a CLARiiON array, which clone state would prevent a clone from being removed from a clone group?
A.Consistent
B.Fractured
C.Promoted
D.Synchronizing
Answer: D
3. How many bi-directional mirror relationships are allowed per CLARiiON array?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Answer: C
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Tuesday, September 25, 2012
the HP0-D09 training material
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QUESTION
Which elements are required for building a disaster recovery solution using HP Matrix OE, if HP BladeSystem
and HP EVA are already installed? (Select three.)
A. HP Insight Recovery Management
B. HP Application Recovery Manager
C. HP Business Copy EVA
D. HP Replication Solutions Manager EVA
E. HP Continuous Access EVA
Answer: ADE
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1.Which of the following authentication processes are specified by the IEEE 802.11 standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Open System authentication
B. RADIUS
C. Shared Key authentication
D. EAP
Answer: AC
2.Which of the following methods are capable of operating in wireless networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. EAP-TLS
B. LEAP
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Answer: BAD
3.John, a malicious hacker, forces a router to stop forwarding packets by flooding it with many open connections simultaneously so that all hosts behind it are effectively disabled. Which of the following attacks is John performing?
A. Rainbow attack
B. DoS attack
C. Replay attack
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: B
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Friday, September 21, 2012
Free ST0-072 exam question
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Which two functions are performed by the Enterprise Vault (EV) Configuration Wizard? (Select two.)
A.grants privileges to the Vault Service account
B.configures the Provisioning Service
C.creates the EV system mailbox
D.configures the index and shopping basket locations
E.configures the Vault Store Group fingerprint database
Answer: AD
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1. Which statement most accurately describes the function of theTerminal Proxy Server (TPS) in a Communication Server (CS) 1000E RIs. 6.0 system deployment for a typical single system network design?
A. The TPS provides web services access to the Call Server.
B. The TPS provides the function of virtual trunk allocation withouta physical presence in the hardware.
C. The TPS provides signaling between an IP telephone and the CallServer.
D. The TPS provides a direct media path between users in the CallServer domain and users In the SIP domain
Answer C
2. A customer has IP Trunks configured between multiple sites. Astation user from one site attempts to call a different site, butall trunks are busy What provisioning can be used to transparentlyprocess this call?
A. The call will automatically process via PSTN with no additionalprovisioning.
B. The call will automatically process via the TIE lines with noadditional provisioning
C. Provisioning of the SIP Redirect Server will allow Fallback toPSTN.
D. Provisioning of the MCDN Alternate Routing feature will allowFallback to PSTN.
Answer D
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Monday, September 10, 2012
the study 1Z0-050 exam
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QUESTION
Which statement describes the effect of table redefinition on the triggers attached to the table?
A.All triggers on the table remain valid.
B.All triggers on the table are invalidated and are automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table.
C.All triggers on the table are invalidated and must be manually recompiled before the next DML execution on the table.
D.Only triggers that are affected by the changes to the structure of the table are invalidated and automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table.
Answer: B
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1.A database administrator has HADR enabled and wants to do a LOAD WITH COPY NO option on the primary server. What happens on the standby server?
A.The Load is replicated without problems.
B.The Load will stop with an appropriate error message.
C.The Load will be automatically converted to NONRECOVERABLE and the standby database will be marked bad.
D.The Load will be automatically converted to COPY YES if the directory or device specified on the primary server is accessible for the standby database.
Correct:C
2.A DBA needs to set the DIAGLEVEL configuration parameter to 4 while users are connected to the database. How can this change be implemented in a way that has a minimum impact to the environment?
A.Quiesce the database and update the parameter.
B.Attach to the instance and update the parameter.
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D.Attach to the instance, update the parameter, stop and restart the instance.
Correct:B
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Wednesday, September 5, 2012
the 000-348 exam question
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When are Struts Actions triggered within the Portal Struts Framework?
A.During the new action handler phase.
B.During the content rendering phase.
C.During the event processing phase.
D.During the beginPage phase.
Correct:C
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A.During the new action handler phase.
B.During the content rendering phase.
C.During the event processing phase.
D.During the beginPage phase.
Correct:C
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1.How is it determined if SNMP is running in a UNIX environment?
A.lslpp
B.ps -ef
C.cat /etc/rc.d
D.cat /etc/services
Correct:B
2.The name file filter allows you to include or exclude files based on what?
A.File name
B.User owner
C.File extension
D.Directory name
Correct:C
3.What is required for TPC for Data for HDS Storage Subsystem support?
A.Agent placement
B.Standby Server for HA
C.UNIX system requirements
D.Vendor's CIM/OM application
Correct:D
the E20-530 test training
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Wednesday, August 29, 2012
study E20-510 exam learning
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Which describes a benefit of using Replication Manager in a Symmetrix environment?
A. Automates concurrent replication between multiple storage arrays
B. Automates restore operations to an alternate array
C. Facilitates quick, frequent, and non-disruptive backups
D. Mounts multiple replicas to the same mount point
Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices goes into an AGP slot on a computer system board?
A. Sound card
B. Processor chip
C. Memory
D. Video card
Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following should the technician verify FIRST if the customer reports that a laptop battery is not charging?
A. Remove all unneeded peripherals
B. Check the power light on the AC adapter
C. Swap the laptop battery for a new or refurbished battery
D. Check the backlight for functionality
Answer: B
000-442 preparation tests
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Monday, August 13, 2012
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On a Juniper router, what is the default file used for syslog messages?
A. system
B. errors
C. security
D. messages
Answer: D
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On a Juniper router, what is the default file used for syslog messages?
A. system
B. errors
C. security
D. messages
Answer: D
000-742 real exam questions
1.A customer has a single controller IBM TotalStorage DS4300 Storage Server. What is the maximum number of expansion drawers that can be attached?
A.0
B.3
C.7
D.16
Correct:A
2.A customer has a requirement for 9 TB of data to be stored onto tape. If the customer wants the most cost-effective LTO3 solution, the best technology choice would be:
A.IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader.
B.IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library.
C.IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library.
D.IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library.
Correct:B
3.A customer mentions that they are evaluating Advanced Intelligent Tape (AIT) for their open server environment. Which of the following best describes AIT technology?
A.4mm
B.Linear recording
C.Helical scan recording
D.IBM TotalStorage 3592 compatible tape
Correct:C
A.0
B.3
C.7
D.16
Correct:A
2.A customer has a requirement for 9 TB of data to be stored onto tape. If the customer wants the most cost-effective LTO3 solution, the best technology choice would be:
A.IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader.
B.IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library.
C.IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library.
D.IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library.
Correct:B
3.A customer mentions that they are evaluating Advanced Intelligent Tape (AIT) for their open server environment. Which of the following best describes AIT technology?
A.4mm
B.Linear recording
C.Helical scan recording
D.IBM TotalStorage 3592 compatible tape
Correct:C
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Monday, August 6, 2012
000-375 preparation tests
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When a system administrator creates an IBM WebSphere Process Server profile and selects Enable
administrative security, an administrator user name must be supplied. This identity is used as a default for
all underlying components. After the installation, which of the following components should be configured
to appropriate users from the user repository?
A. Human Task Manager
B. Business State Machine
C. Business Process Choreographer
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI)
E. Service component architecture (SCA)
Answer: C,D,E
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When a system administrator creates an IBM WebSphere Process Server profile and selects Enable
administrative security, an administrator user name must be supplied. This identity is used as a default for
all underlying components. After the installation, which of the following components should be configured
to appropriate users from the user repository?
A. Human Task Manager
B. Business State Machine
C. Business Process Choreographer
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI)
E. Service component architecture (SCA)
Answer: C,D,E
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MB4-212 Questions And Answers
1.What program do you use to set up SQL back up jobs?
A.SQL Profiler
B.Solomon Database Maintenance
C.Enterprise Manager
D.Service Manager
Correct:C
2.You wish to deploy Solomon in an environment with 34 concurrent users. Which Solomon edition needs to be installed?
A.Single-User Solomon Standard Edition
B.Multi-User Solomon Standard Edition
C.Solomon Enterprise Edition
D.Solomon Professional
Correct:D
3.Solomon's access security functions include which of the following?
A.Controlling who can and cannot log into Solomon.
B.Enabling and disabling Microsoft Access database security functions.
C.Identifying Solomon database users and groups.
D.Controlling who does and does not have access rights to certain Solomon windows.
Correct:A C D
A.SQL Profiler
B.Solomon Database Maintenance
C.Enterprise Manager
D.Service Manager
Correct:C
2.You wish to deploy Solomon in an environment with 34 concurrent users. Which Solomon edition needs to be installed?
A.Single-User Solomon Standard Edition
B.Multi-User Solomon Standard Edition
C.Solomon Enterprise Edition
D.Solomon Professional
Correct:D
3.Solomon's access security functions include which of the following?
A.Controlling who can and cannot log into Solomon.
B.Enabling and disabling Microsoft Access database security functions.
C.Identifying Solomon database users and groups.
D.Controlling who does and does not have access rights to certain Solomon windows.
Correct:A C D
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Tuesday, July 31, 2012
The 9L0-008 practice exam
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Question:
A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an application. You have verified the symptom, and have already attempted to force the application to quit, but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC.
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application.
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
Answer: D
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Question:
A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an application. You have verified the symptom, and have already attempted to force the application to quit, but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC.
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application.
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
Answer: D
free 000-M50 study guide
1. What are the three pillars of the IBM ISS go-to-market strategy?
A. IBM ISS Products, Professional Security Services, and Managed Security Services
B. Professional Security Services, Managed Security Services, and Business Continuity Services
C. Managed Security Services, IBM ISS Products, and Tier 1 OEM Security Vendors
D. Threat Mitigation Services, Data Security Services, and IBM ISS Products
Answer: A
2. Identify the best prospect from the list below:
A. Allied - Needs a best-of-breed network-based IPS for the corporate internet connection. They already use Proventia Server and have SiteProtector running.
B. Merco - Needs to provide host-based protection for all 250 application servers. They also need someone to implement the solution and provide 24x7 monitoring and management.
C. Acme - Needs end-point protection for 1000 desktops. They have Symantec AV, but are lacking firewall, IPS, and content filtering.
D. Partco - Needs an automated application assessment on its primary Web-facing application.
Answer: B
3. A seller has identified and driven an opportunity for intrusion prevention products. The client now indicates that it will release an RFP for IBM products. What method can the seller use to help win the deal?
A. Register the deal.
B. Engage the IBM Security Specialist and request special pricing.
C. Register for Order Protection from the distributor.
D. Engage the SE to prepar e the SOW.
Answer: A
A. IBM ISS Products, Professional Security Services, and Managed Security Services
B. Professional Security Services, Managed Security Services, and Business Continuity Services
C. Managed Security Services, IBM ISS Products, and Tier 1 OEM Security Vendors
D. Threat Mitigation Services, Data Security Services, and IBM ISS Products
Answer: A
2. Identify the best prospect from the list below:
A. Allied - Needs a best-of-breed network-based IPS for the corporate internet connection. They already use Proventia Server and have SiteProtector running.
B. Merco - Needs to provide host-based protection for all 250 application servers. They also need someone to implement the solution and provide 24x7 monitoring and management.
C. Acme - Needs end-point protection for 1000 desktops. They have Symantec AV, but are lacking firewall, IPS, and content filtering.
D. Partco - Needs an automated application assessment on its primary Web-facing application.
Answer: B
3. A seller has identified and driven an opportunity for intrusion prevention products. The client now indicates that it will release an RFP for IBM products. What method can the seller use to help win the deal?
A. Register the deal.
B. Engage the IBM Security Specialist and request special pricing.
C. Register for Order Protection from the distributor.
D. Engage the SE to prepar e the SOW.
Answer: A
Monday, July 30, 2012
Microsoft 70-547 training material
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Monday, July 23, 2012
MB7-517 pdf certification
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QUESTION
You are the System Implementer and are discussing the differences between the SQL Server Option and the Dynamics NAV database. What do you communicate as the main difference between the database platforms? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. The User Interface
B. The available backup facilities
C. The logon process
D. The way that SIFT works
Answer: BD
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Citrix 1Y0-A22 study guide
QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restoring the data store
B. backing up the data store
C. restarting the XenApp server
D. restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed
XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK
command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A. Recover the local data store
B. Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C. Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D. Display information about servers in the farm
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from
Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008
cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors.
None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A. After restarting the data collector
B. After using the DSMAINT command
C. After running the QFARM command
D. After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Answer: B
70-431 preparation tests
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Tuesday, July 17, 2012
HP HP3-C11 exam dumps
HP3-C11 dumps HP Scanjet N9120 is a high demand network certification in IT industrial area. In recent years, it has become a global standard for many successful IT companies.
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What are some features of the HP Scanjet N9120.? (Select two.)
A. hardware deskew
B. switchable black and white background
C. mechanical duplexing
D. digital sending
E. scan speed 60 ppm
Answer: B,D
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What are some features of the HP Scanjet N9120.? (Select two.)
A. hardware deskew
B. switchable black and white background
C. mechanical duplexing
D. digital sending
E. scan speed 60 ppm
Answer: B,D
642-661 Questions And Answers
QUESTION 1
What is the range of values from which an ISP can assign a private AS number?
A. 32768 to 65535
B. 64512 to 65535
C. 65101 to 65535
D. 65001 to 65535
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Network topology exhibit
What can prevent the corresponding BGP session from being successfully established?
A. Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 cannot establish the IBGP session because Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 are not directly connected.
B. Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 establish the EBGP session if the BGP holddown timers between the two EBGP neighbors are different.
C. Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 cannot establish the IBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.
D. Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 cannot establish the EBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
How should the EBGP session between R1 and R2 be established to enable load balancing? (Choose three)
A. Use the maximum-paths 2 option.
B. Use the ebgp-multihop 2 option.
C. Use static routes on R1 and R2 to reach the other router's loopback.
D. Establish a single EBGP session using the loopback0 interface IP address on R1 and R2.
E. Establish twp EBGP sessions using both the S0 and S1 interface IP address on R1 and R2.
Answer: BCD
What is the range of values from which an ISP can assign a private AS number?
A. 32768 to 65535
B. 64512 to 65535
C. 65101 to 65535
D. 65001 to 65535
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Network topology exhibit
What can prevent the corresponding BGP session from being successfully established?
A. Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 cannot establish the IBGP session because Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 are not directly connected.
B. Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 establish the EBGP session if the BGP holddown timers between the two EBGP neighbors are different.
C. Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 cannot establish the IBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.
D. Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 cannot establish the EBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
How should the EBGP session between R1 and R2 be established to enable load balancing? (Choose three)
A. Use the maximum-paths 2 option.
B. Use the ebgp-multihop 2 option.
C. Use static routes on R1 and R2 to reach the other router's loopback.
D. Establish a single EBGP session using the loopback0 interface IP address on R1 and R2.
E. Establish twp EBGP sessions using both the S0 and S1 interface IP address on R1 and R2.
Answer: BCD
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